I'm really confused about all this... I mean... do the French not understand how psychotropics work? Because they don't make you act CONTRARY to your inherent nature... rather they take what's already there... and then it's just magnified. So like, for me, when I smoke weed, my largely creative nature winds up magnified and I can be MORE creative... I can't be something else, I can't be something I'm not, psychotropics only magnify what's already there. If anything, the drugs prove his guilty nature because without them... he'd still want to kill the lady, he'd just be less inclined to act on that want.
The WANT to commit the crime was ALREADY THERE and since he made the choice to use the drugs to ENANCE what was already there... mmmm, yeah, that's all on him. I mean, to the point where he was even tha'fuckin drug DEALER... like, he wasn't even a victim of a screwed up system, but rather he was A DYSFUNCTIONAL COG directly creating that screwed up system.